Smith's "Dictionary of the Bible," for
instance--is the delightfully comprehensive one: "Sychar was either a
name applied to the town of Shechem, or it was an independent place."
This authority, however, goes clean against Dr. Lightfoot's assertion,
for it continues: "The first of these alternatives is now almost
universally accepted." Lightfoot [32:1] considered Sychar a mere
alteration of the name Sichem, both representing the same place.
He found a reference in the Talmud to "_Ain Socar_," and with great
hesitation he associated the name with Sychar. "May we not venture"
to render it "the well of Sychar"? And after detailed extracts and
explanations he says: "And now let the reader give us his judgment
as to its name and place, whether it doth not seem to have some relation
with our 'well of Sychar.' It may be disputed on either side." Wieseler,
who first, in more recent times, developed the conjectures of Lightfoot,
argues: "In the first place, there can be no doubt that by [Greek:
Suchar] Sichem is meant," and he adds, a few lines after: "Regarding
this there is no controversy amongst interpreters." He totally rejects
the idea of such in alteration of the name occurring in translation,
which he says is "unprecedented." He therefore concludes that in
[Greek: Suchar] we have _another_ name for Sichem.
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